OB/GYN

A 34-year-old woman G2 P0010 presents at 32 weeks gestation for a routine antenatal appointment.

She reports mild headache, but no right upper quadrant pain or visual disturbance. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable (see lab result). Blood pressure 150/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick Test Result Normal Value: Protein +3 absent. Which of the following is the best next step of management?

  1. A Admission for observation Correct answer
  2. B Admission for induction of labor
  3. C Outpatient appointment in 1 week time
  4. D Admission for immediate cesarean section

Explanation

Core Concept: Preeclampsia without severe features is defined by new-onset hypertension (BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg) and proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction after 20 weeks of gestation, without severe criteria (BP ≥ 160/110, thrombocytopenia, impaired liver function, renal insufficiency, pulmonary edema, or new-onset cerebral/visual disturbances).

Clinical Presentation:

  • Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria.
  • Mild edema, mild headache.
  • Complications: Progression to severe preeclampsia, eclampsia, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction.

Diagnosis:

  • First-line diagnostic tool: Blood pressure monitoring and urine dipstick for proteinuria.
  • Most accurate (gold standard) test: 24-hour urine protein collection or urine protein-to-creatinine ratio, along with a comprehensive metabolic panel and CBC.

Management:

  • Acute management: Admission for close maternal and fetal observation, serial blood pressure checks, and laboratory evaluation to rule out severe features.
  • Definitive management: Expectant management until 37 weeks gestation, followed by delivery (induction of labor).

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