Pediatrics

A 4-year-old child presents with shortness of breath and cough following flu-like illness for 2 days.

Examination reveals child in severe distress with increased effort of respiration with bilateral wheeze and prolonged expiatory phase. He had slimier attacks before that required hospitalization. Blood pressure 100/65 mmHg, Heart rate 124 /min, Respiratory rate 33 /min, Temperature 36.6 °C, Oxygen saturation 82 %. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

  1. A Antibiotic and systematic steroid
  2. B Ventolin nebulization and antibiotics
  3. C Intravenous fluid and ventalin nebulization
  4. D Ventolin nebulization and systematic steroid Correct answer

Explanation

Core Concept: Acute severe asthma exacerbation in a pediatric patient, characterized by severe bronchospasm, airway inflammation, and hypoxemia.

Clinical Presentation:

  • Dyspnea, tachypnea, accessory muscle use, bilateral wheezing, prolonged expiratory phase, and hypoxia.

Diagnosis:

  • First-line: Clinical assessment of respiratory distress and pulse oximetry.
  • Gold Standard: Clinical diagnosis; peak expiratory flow or spirometry in older, cooperative children.

Management:

  • Acute: First-line therapy includes supplemental oxygen, inhaled short-acting beta-agonists (Ventolin/albuterol nebulization or MDI with spacer), and early administration of systemic corticosteroids (oral dexamethasone or IV methylprednisolone) to reduce airway inflammation. Ipratropium bromide may be added for severe attacks.
  • Long-term: Initiate or step-up daily controller therapy (inhaled corticosteroids) and provide an asthma action plan.

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