Surgery
A 23-year-old military man presented to the clinic with history of bilateral groin swelling.
Examination revealed there was bilateral inguinal hernia. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
Core Concept: Bilateral inguinal hernias in a young, active adult.
Clinical Presentation:
- Bilateral groin swellings that enlarge with standing, coughing, or Valsalva and reduce when supine.
Diagnosis:
- Clinical examination.
Management:
- Definitive management: Laparoscopic repair with mesh (e.g., TEP or TAPP approach) is the gold standard for bilateral inguinal hernias. It allows the surgeon to repair both sides through the same small incisions without needing bilateral large groin incisions, resulting in significantly less postoperative pain, lower risk of chronic groin pain, and a faster return to duty/work compared to bilateral open repairs.