OB/GYN

A 35-year-old woman is complaining of severe abdominal pain.

She is a known case of primary infertility and underwent embryo transfer 3 weeks ago (see lab results). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A Ovarian torsion
  2. B Ectopic pregnancy الإجابة الصحيحة
  3. C Acute appendicitis
  4. D Intestinal obstruction

الشرح

Core Concept: Assisted reproductive technologies (ART), such as IVF and embryo transfer, carry an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy and heterotopic pregnancy compared to spontaneous conception. Severe abdominal pain 3-5 weeks post-transfer is highly suspicious.

Clinical Presentation:

  • Unilateral or diffuse severe lower abdominal pain
  • Vaginal spotting, shoulder tip pain (if ruptured with hemoperitoneum), and hemodynamic instability

Diagnosis:

  • First-line diagnostic plan: Quantitative serum beta-hCG and transvaginal ultrasound to locate the gestational sac.
  • Gold standard: Visualization of an extrauterine gestational sac with a yolk sac or fetal pole, or an empty uterus with an hCG above the discriminatory zone.

Management:

  • Acute management: Hemodynamic stabilization and urgent evaluation for rupture.
  • Gold standard long-term management: Medical management with methotrexate (if stable and unruptured) or emergency surgical intervention (laparoscopic salpingectomy/salpingostomy) if ruptured or contraindicated for medical therapy.

40 سؤالاً مجاناً مع حساب

الأسئلة المنشورة هنا عيّنة ثابتة. أنشئ حساباً مجانياً لتتدرب على بنك الأسئلة الكامل، مع تحليل أدائك حسب التخصص وصفحة لمراجعة أخطائك.

إنشاء حساب مجاني

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