OB/GYN

A 40-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia for the last 6 months.

She underwent an endometrial biopsy. Endometrial biopsy: Presence of simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  1. A Mefenamic acid
  2. B Tranexamic acid
  3. C Progesterone therapy الإجابة الصحيحة
  4. D Intrauterine contraceptive device

الشرح

Core Concept: Endometrial hyperplasia without atypia is an overgrowth of endometrial glands relative to the stroma, driven by unopposed estrogen exposure. It carries a low risk of progression to endometrial cancer (<5%).

Clinical Presentation:

  • Abnormal uterine bleeding (menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, postmenopausal bleeding)
  • Pelvic pain or cramping (less common)
  • Complications: Chronic anemia due to heavy menstrual bleeding; small risk of progression to atypical hyperplasia or cancer.

Diagnosis:

  • First-line: Transvaginal ultrasound to measure endometrial thickness.
  • Gold Standard: Endometrial biopsy or hysteroscopy with directed biopsy showing crowded glands without cytologic atypia.

Management:

  • Acute management: Control acute heavy bleeding with high-dose oral progestins, combined oral contraceptives, or tranexamic acid.
  • Long-term/definitive: Progestin therapy (oral medroxyprogesterone acetate, megestrol, or the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system [LNG-IUS]) to counteract estrogen effects and induce glandular regression. Follow-up biopsy is recommended after 6 months.

40 سؤالاً مجاناً مع حساب

الأسئلة المنشورة هنا عيّنة ثابتة. أنشئ حساباً مجانياً لتتدرب على بنك الأسئلة الكامل، مع تحليل أدائك حسب التخصص وصفحة لمراجعة أخطائك.

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