Medicine
A young man who is sexually active is evaluated in the clinic for clinical features that suggest gonorrhea.
Which of the following tests is the most appropriate to establish the diagnosis?
Explanation
Core Concept: Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative intracellular diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, it typically presents as acute purulent urethritis.
Clinical Presentation:
- Profuse purulent urethral discharge, severe dysuria, and urethral pruritus.
- Complications: Epididymitis, prostatitis, urethral stricture, and disseminated gonococcal infection (arthritis-dermatitis syndrome).
Diagnosis:
- First-line tool: Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT) on a first-catch urine sample or urethral swab.
- Gold standard: Bacterial culture on Thayer-Martin agar from a urethral swab, which allows for definitive identification and crucial antimicrobial susceptibility testing due to rising global resistance.
Management:
- Acute: Empiric dual therapy (typically Ceftriaxone IM single dose, plus Doxycycline if Chlamydia is not ruled out) based on current CDC guidelines.
- Long-term/Definitive: Treat sexual partners simultaneously (expedited partner therapy) to prevent reinfection, and retest in 3 months.