OB/GYN
A 24-year-old married woman came to the clinic complaining of yellowish offensive vaginal discharge and…
A 24-year-old married woman came to the clinic complaining of yellowish offensive vaginal discharge and itching for 2 weeks duration. She has no other significant medical history. Vaginal swab done which showed motile flagellate organisms on wet film microscopy. Appropriate treatment was initiated. Which of the following is the best management option for her husband?
Explanation
Core Concept: Management of sexual partners in Trichomoniasis. Because Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection, concurrent treatment of all sexual partners is mandatory to prevent the 'ping-pong' effect of reinfection.
Clinical Presentation:
- Male partners are often asymptomatic but can present with urethritis or epididymitis.
Diagnosis:
- First-line: Clinical diagnosis based on the index patient's confirmed infection.
- Gold Standard: NAAT or culture of the partner's urine or urethral swab.
Management:
- Acute: Abstain from sexual intercourse until both partners complete treatment and symptoms resolve.
- Definitive: Oral Metronidazole for the partner, regardless of whether they are symptomatic or have a positive test.